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cesiuminjector
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2006-04-04
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ive seen many examples of fallacies but how is this one a fallacy?

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ive seen many examples of fallacies but how is this one a fallacy?

Comments for: ive seen many examples of fallacies but how is this one a fallacy?
djyaecomcastnet Report This Comment
Date: April 04, 2006 11:31PM

A and b are zero...
Temuchin Report This Comment
Date: April 04, 2006 11:43PM

I am waiting for Siouxie to give us an answer on this.

She is the smartest female in Australia behind Sandra Sully
billybob Report This Comment
Date: April 04, 2006 11:46PM

Actually, it is wrong. Whoever drew up that example did not do it correctly and made a goose of it.
a=b
a^2 = ab
a^2 + a^2 - 2ab = a^2 + ab - 2ab
2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab

The rest will fit into place.
Anonomus Report This Comment
Date: April 04, 2006 11:50PM

The fallacy is in the given, a=b. "a" does not equatl "b" any more than circles are square. In an equation where you can just make things up, anything is possible. Even 2=l
pro_junior Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 12:30AM

or, i before e except after c....
cesiuminjector Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 01:10AM

i understand what your getting at 27229, but what if "a" is a function and "b" is the tangent line approximation of the function "a". Given a domain of "b" where it closely approximates "a", mathamaticians frequently (and must) substitute values of "b". im sorry to inform you that "a" can equal "b"
aDCBeast Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 02:02AM

[email protected] is right. A = B or the 2nd assumption is BS.
cesiuminjector Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 02:31AM

beast - that aint no assumption - ive taken enough calc to show its true. Thats actually pretty much the entire idea behind calculus. Using derivatives, tangent lines, tangent planes, ect to determine values relating to a function. If you limit the domain of a derivative, it will (for all practical purposes) be equal the original function in that domain. you can substitute a for b because they can be equal. Its no different than the sin of theta for small numbers is approximately equal to the tan of theta for small numbers.
aDCBeast Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 03:13AM

Uh .. wrong. a2=ab is an assumption. A bad one. One that shows this to be miserably false on all counts.

Keep trying geek.
i_hate_you_cunts Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 03:46AM

cockBeast:
cesiuminjector is right.If you had passed high school maths you'd understand what he's talking about.Keywords here:"domain limitation".Notice how the very top line doesn't say" -inf
shaDEz Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 04:23AM

a2=ab
b=2
Anonymous Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 04:34AM

DIVIDE BY ZERO PPL!
shaDEz Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 05:54AM

system error occured in line?
Anonymous Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 11:11AM

line 4, (a-b)=0, so you can't go from line 4 to line 5

because, if you have 0*anynumber = 0*anyOTHERnumber, you can't, and mustn't say : anynumber =anyOTHERnumber but 0=0 (latĂȘtatoto!)!
Anonymous Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 11:13AM

hum, little problem with the formula.. this is

"0*anynumber=0*anyOTHERnumber"
And "anynumber=anyOTHERnumber"
and "0=0"
mkcerusky Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 12:15PM

Does any of you know why in these kinds of computations one can't divide by zero?
cesiuminjector Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 02:19PM

in layman the reason you cannot divide by zero: how many times can something go into nothing

im sure this is a fallacy, but its not readily apparent to me why

in line 4, there is just the expanded a^2-b^2 which is equal to (a+b)(a-b), it doesnt say a*b anywhere in line b. The next algebraic operation is to devide (a-b) from both sides of the equation - which is perfectly legal

nevermind - im going to send this to one of the math proffesors at cal poly - they will respond back with the right explanation
cesiuminjector Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 02:22PM

in line 4 - sorry typo
Anonymous Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 04:26PM

x=0.9999... repeating
10x=9.9999... repeating
10x-x=9
x=1

how can x=0.9999... repeating and x=1???
explain please
shaDEz Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 04:44PM

i'm guessing it is estimating to =1 when you forced a conclusion out of it
it is safe assume
if x=0.9999...
then 10x-x=9
even though it would actually be 8.9999...
Anonymous Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 07:10PM

Now I know why I couldnt give a rats arse at school.
cesiuminjector Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 07:54PM

i can supply you with more math phenomena - like how the line y= (1/x) where x exists from 1 to positive infinity and then this function is rotated about the x-axis (makes a giant funnel shape lying on its sided). This shape has infinite surface area, yet finite volume.
i_hate_you_cunts Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 09:20PM

cesiuminjector said :
i can supply you with more math phenomena - like how the line y= (1/x) where x exists from 1 to positive infinity and then this function is rotated about the x-axis (makes a giant funnel shape lying on its sided). This shape has infinite surface area, yet finite volume.

Groovy.Do it.DO IT!No, seriously I would like to see more.
shaDEz Report This Comment
Date: April 05, 2006 09:49PM

nice...
pro_junior Report This Comment
Date: April 06, 2006 12:47AM

ur^2...
mkcerusky Report This Comment
Date: April 13, 2006 11:07AM

The point with division by zero is that division is the inverse of multiplication, when you multiply something by zero you always get zero, and you never get a number different from zero. Th function of multiplying by zero is nor injective neither injective, so it cannot be inverted.
In other words if n*0 = 0, and you try to divide 0 by 0 you cannot say what what was the value of n. Moreover, no number M different from zero can be the result of an operation n*0=M thus, given M you can't find out what was n.